अन्तर्राष्ट्रिय नर्सिङ (NCLEX, DHA, HAAD)
अन्तर्राष्ट्रिय नर्सिङ (NCLEX, DHA, HAAD)
International Nursing (NCLEX-RN, DHA, HAAD) · २,०४४ प्रश्न
२,०४४ प्रश्न उपलब्ध। मोड छान्नुहोस्:
अन्तर्राष्ट्रिय नर्सिङ: प्रश्न र उत्तर
सही लागेको विकल्पमा थिच्नुहोस्। सही भए हरियो, गलत भए रातो देखिन्छ; ३ सेकेन्डपछि सही उत्तर र व्याख्या देखिन्छ।
सही: ० / ०
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A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse should teach the patient to monitor for which adverse effect? (A) Bradycardia (B) Tachycardia (C) Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) (D) Hyporeflexia
सही उत्तर: ग) Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
Option C is correct. Haloperidol is known to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as dystonia, akathisia, and parkinsonism, which manifest as involuntary movements. Option A is incorrect because haloperidol can cause tachycardia, not bradycardia. Option B is also a potential side effect but less common than EPS. Option D is the typical side effect of neuromuscular blockade, not haloperidol.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A nurse is administering intravenous furosemide (Lasix) to a patient with pulmonary edema. The patient reports a sudden onset of weakness and shortness of breath following the administration. What is the MOST likely cause? (A) Hypovolemia (B) Cardiac arrest (C) Intra-cardiac hemorrhage (D) Rapid potassium loss
सही उत्तर: घ) Rapid potassium loss
Option C is correct. Rapid IV administration of high doses of furosemide can cause a sudden drop in preload due to its diuretic effect, which can lead to ventricular contraction and collapse - intra-cardiac hemorrhage. This causes rapid onset hypotension and shortness of breath. Option A is incorrect because hypovolemia would typically present with thirst. Option B is possible but less likely than the immediate hemodynamic consequence. Option D does not explain the sudden weakness.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A patient with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). The nurse should instruct the patient regarding which potential side effect? (A) Increased appetite leading to weight gain. (B) Decreased blood pressure resulting in dizziness. (C) Hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels). (D) Constipation due to altered bowel motility.
सही उत्तर: ग) Hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels)
Option C is correct. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can cause hyperkalemia if not monitored closely. Option A is incorrect because spironolactone often suppresses appetite. Option B is a potential side effect of many diuretics but not the primary one associated with spironolactone. Option D is not typically a prominent side effect.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A patient with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which instruction is MOST important for the nurse to provide regarding the patient’s diet? (A) Increase intake of sodium to maintain fluid balance. (B) Consume a high-fiber diet to prevent constipation. (C) Monitor vitamin K rich foods such as leafy greens and limit their intake. (D) Drink 8 glasses of water daily regardless of urine output.
सही उत्तर: ग) Monitor vitamin K rich foods such as leafy greens and limit their intake
Option C is correct. Warfarin’s anticoagulant effect is influenced by the availability of Vitamin K. Leafy green vegetables are a significant source of vitamin K, so decreasing intake helps maintain consistent dosing of warfarin. Option A is incorrect because sodium intake shouldn't be increased for consistency in warfarin dosage. Option B is irrelevant to the medication’s action and is generally good advice, but not specifically tied to this drug. Option D is general hydration guidance and not relevant.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A nurse is administering a medication for hypertension. The patient reports dizziness and blurred vision after the dose. Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation for these symptoms? (A) Hypoglycemia (B) Excessive vasodilation caused by the drug (C) Increased heart rate due to stimulant effects (D) Dehydration
सही उत्तर: ख) Excessive vasodilation caused by the drug
Option B is correct. Many antihypertensive medications, particularly those targeting blood vessels, cause vasodilation (widening of blood vessels). This can lead to dizziness and blurred vision as a result of reduced peripheral resistance. Option A is incorrect because hypoglycemia typically presents with shakiness and confusion. Option C is less likely unless the medication itself has stimulant properties. Option D is incorrect; dehydration would usually present with thirst and dry mouth.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A patient is prescribed intravenous (IV) acetaminophen for pain relief. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the medication’s instructions?
सही उत्तर: घ) “I should avoid taking this if I have liver problems.”
Option 3 is correct because acetaminophen instructions typically include taking it with water for absorption and avoiding excessive doses. Option 1 is incorrect as the frequency ‘as needed’ isn't specific. Option 2 is incorrect due to the formulation of oral acetaminophen; it's a tablet, not chewable. Option 4 is relevant to caution but doesn’t describe the administration instructions.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A newborn infant demonstrates cyanosis during crying. The nurse recognizes this as potentially related to a congenital heart defect. Which finding would *most* support the diagnosis of Tetralogy of Fallot?
सही उत्तर: ग) C) A characteristic ‘tet spell’ associated with increased cardiac output.
The 'tet spell' – cyanosis during crying due to increased cardiac output – is a hallmark of Tetralogy of Fallot. This defect causes an obstruction to blood flow through the heart. Option A describes normal circulation; B relates to other conditions; D is atypical in this scenario.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation reports experiencing irregular contractions. The fetal heart rate monitoring reveals an increase in variability. Which of the following interventions is *most* appropriate for the nurse to implement?
सही उत्तर: ग) C) Provide reassurance and monitor fetal well-being closely.
At 32 weeks with irregular contractions and increased fetal heart rate variability, close monitoring of the fetus is paramount. Providing reassurance and continuous monitoring allows the nurse to assess fetal well-being without intervening aggressively, especially before further confirmation of preterm labor. Option A might worsen the condition; B would be inappropriate at this stage; D is a supportive measure but not the primary intervention.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A 6-week-old infant is brought to the clinic by the mother who reports projectile vomiting after each feed. Physical examination reveals an olive-shaped mass in the epigastrium. Based on this information, which of the following conditions is *most* likely?
सही उत्तर: क) A) Pyloric Stenosis.
The presentation – projectile non-bilious vomiting and an olive-shaped mass in a 6-week-old infant – is highly indicative of pyloric stenosis. This condition involves thickening of the pyloric sphincter, causing forceful vomiting. Options B, C & D do not fit this clinical picture.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A nurse is educating a mother about postpartum care for her newborn. Which of the following instructions is *most* important regarding umbilical cord care?
सही उत्तर: ख) B) To keep the cord stump dry and exposed to air, allowing it to fall off naturally within 1-3 weeks.
The standard recommended practice is to keep the umbilical cord stump dry and exposed to air, allowing it to separate naturally. This minimizes the risk of infection. Applying antiseptic solutions or tightly wrapping the stump can disrupt the natural drying process. Option D offers unproven advice.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
यी अभ्यास प्रश्न हुन्, आधिकारिक प्रश्न होइनन्। पाठ्यक्रम, विज्ञापन र नतिजाका लागि सम्बन्धित निकायको आधिकारिक वेबसाइट हेर्नुहोस्। उत्तरमा गल्ती भेटे प्रश्नमुनिको "टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट" मा लेख्नुहोस्।
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