अन्तर्राष्ट्रिय नर्सिङ लाइसेन्स NCLEX-RN, DHA, HAAD र CBT तयारी
अन्तर्राष्ट्रिय नर्सिङ लाइसेन्स – NCLEX-RN, DHA, HAAD र CBT
NCLEX-RN / DHA / HAAD · NCLEX-RN / DHA / HAAD / CBT
२,०४४ प्रश्न उपलब्ध। मोड छान्नुहोस्:
अन्तर्राष्ट्रिय नर्सिङ: प्रश्न र उत्तर
सही लागेको विकल्पमा थिच्नुहोस्। सही भए हरियो, गलत भए रातो देखिन्छ; ३ सेकेन्डपछि सही उत्तर र व्याख्या देखिन्छ।
सही: ० / ०
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A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. The nurse should educate the patient about a potential side effect that requires careful monitoring: a) Increased libido b) Hyperkalemia c) Hypotension d) Angioedema
सही उत्तर: घ) d) Angioedema
Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor which can cause hypotension as a side effect. Angioedema (swelling of the face, tongue, or throat) is a rare but serious risk associated with ACE inhibitors and should be closely monitored for. The other options are not typical adverse effects.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A client with chronic heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). The nurse understands that a key therapeutic effect of furosemide is: a) Decreasing preload b) Increasing afterload c) Increasing cardiac output d) Converting angiotensin II to angiotensin 1
सही उत्तर: क) a) Decreasing preload
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that primarily decreases preload (venous return) by promoting fluid excretion, which in turn reduces the workload on the heart. While it has other effects, decreasing preload is its primary mechanism of action.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A client presents with symptoms of digoxin toxicity including nausea, vomiting, visual disturbances, and arrhythmias. The nurse understands that the primary antidote for digoxin poisoning is: a) Nacetylcysteine b) Atropine c) Calcium gluconate d) Naloxone
सही उत्तर: ग) c) Calcium gluconate
Calcium gluconate is the standard antidote for digoxin toxicity as it stabilizes cardiac membranes and counteracts the drug's effects. The other options are not specific antidotes for digoxin – Nacetylcysteine is used for acetaminophen poisoning, atropine for bradycardia, and naloxone for opioid overdose.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A neonate demonstrates signs of hypoglycemia (jitteriness, irritability). The nurse’s priority action is:
सही उत्तर: ख) Perform a blood glucose test
The correct answer is 1. Hypoglycemia in neonates requires immediate intervention. Administering intravenous dextrose rapidly corrects the low blood sugar. Options 2 and 3 are diagnostic or therapeutic interventions to be done *after* initiating treatment. Monitoring maternal glucose levels would not address the infant's hypoglycemia.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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During a home visit of a pregnant client, the nurse observes that the client reports experiencing significant anxiety related to the upcoming birth and her ability to care for the newborn. What is the MOST appropriate nursing intervention?
सही उत्तर: ग) Encourage the client to verbalize her fears and concerns
The correct answer is 2. The nurse’s role in managing anxiety involves providing accurate, reassuring information – education is key to alleviating anxieties. Options 1 & 3 are inappropriate interventions for anxiety. Option 4 while potentially helpful long-term, doesn't address the immediate need for reassurance.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A newborn infant, born via vaginal delivery, has a positive Nikolsky's sign (skin readily spreads when gently stroked). Which condition should the nurse suspect?
सही उत्तर: ख) Cystic Fibrosis
The correct answer is 1. A positive Nikolsky’s sign is strongly associated with Cystic Fibrosis due to impaired epithelial cell function. Options 2, 3 and 4 are other congenital conditions but don't explain the Nikolsky's sign.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A postpartum client is experiencing excessive lochia (heavy bleeding). Upon assessment, the nurse observes that the uterus is boggy and irregular in contour. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement FIRST?
सही उत्तर: घ) Administer oxytocin (Pitocin) as prescribed
The correct answer is 3, applying manual pressure. This addresses the immediate issue of a boggy uterus - attempting to contract it manually is the priority action. Options 1 and 2 are interventions for fluid imbalance or supporting uterine walls but don’t address the underlying problem of uterine atony. Option 4 could be used later, but initial management focuses on stimulating contractions.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation reports experiencing intermittent contractions that she describes as ‘practice contractions’. What is the MOST appropriate nursing intervention for the nurse to implement at this time?
सही उत्तर: ख) Encourage the patient to monitor her contractions and report any changes
The correct answer is 1. ‘Practice contractions’ are common in late pregnancy. The nurse’s role is to educate the client on their significance, encourage self-monitoring, and advise rest and hydration. Options 2 and 3 are inappropriate; oxygen alone doesn't address the situation, and pain medication isn't indicated without significant discomfort. Option 4 is incorrect as it suggests a need for medication before assessing the situation.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A patient reports experiencing nausea after starting a new proton pump inhibitor (PPI). Which action should the nurse prioritize?
सही उत्तर: क) A) Increase the dose of the PPI to provide faster relief
Option C is correct. Long-term PPI use has been linked to nutrient deficiencies (particularly B12), so assessing this is crucial. Options A, B and D are inappropriate actions without first evaluating potential causes.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A nurse is calculating the dosage of intravenous sodium chloride (NaCl) solution to administer to a patient. The order is for 2 liters to be infused over 4 hours. If the drop factor on the IV tubing is 60 drops per minute, how many drops per hour should the infusion pump deliver?
सही उत्तर: ख) 3600
The calculation involves converting liters to milliliters and then calculating the equivalent in drops per hour. 2 liters = 2000 mL. Drops per hour = (2000 mL / 1 mL) * 60 drops/minute * 1 hour / 60 minutes = 2000 * 60 / 60 = 2000 drops per hour. The most plausible answer is 3600, which is a miscalculation of the conversion.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
यी अभ्यास प्रश्न हुन्, आधिकारिक प्रश्न होइनन्। पाठ्यक्रम, विज्ञापन र नतिजाका लागि सम्बन्धित निकायको आधिकारिक वेबसाइट हेर्नुहोस्। उत्तरमा गल्ती भेटे प्रश्नमुनिको "टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट" मा लेख्नुहोस्।
नमस्ते! पाठ्यक्रम, सामान्य ज्ञान, भाषा परीक्षा वा कुनै प्रश्नको उत्तर बुझ्न सोध्नुहोस्।
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