चिकित्सा स्नातकोत्तर प्रवेश (MECEE-PG) MD / MS / MDS प्रवेश परीक्षा तयारी
चिकित्सा स्नातकोत्तर प्रवेश (MECEE-PG) – MD / MS / MDS प्रवेश परीक्षा
MECEE-PG – MD/MS/MDS · MECEE-PG (MD/MS/MDS)
२,८६५ प्रश्न उपलब्ध। मोड छान्नुहोस्:
MD/MS/MDS प्रवेश: प्रश्न र उत्तर
सही लागेको विकल्पमा थिच्नुहोस्। सही भए हरियो, गलत भए रातो देखिन्छ; ३ सेकेन्डपछि सही उत्तर र व्याख्या देखिन्छ।
सही: ० / ०
-
Which of the following statements accurately describes the role of carbonic anhydrase in red blood cells?
सही उत्तर: ख) It catalyzes the hydration of carbon dioxide to bicarbonate
Carbonic anhydrase is essential for converting carbon dioxide and water into carbonic acid, which then dissociates into bicarbonate ions and hydrogen ions – a key step in CO2 transport in the blood. This process is vital for pH regulation and gas exchange.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
-
Which of the following best describes the primary function of the juxtaglomerular apparatus?
सही उत्तर: ख) Stimulation of urine production via renin release
The juxtaglomerular apparatus, consisting of the macula densa and granular cells, regulates renal blood flow and sodium reabsorption through the secretion of renin in response to decreased renal perfusion pressure. The other options represent unrelated physiological processes.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
-
Which of the following is the MOST accurate description of the pathophysiological mechanism underlying septic shock? a) Vasodilation due to excessive sympathetic stimulation. b) Microvascular thrombosis leading to tissue ischemia and organ failure. c) Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) with dysregulated vasodilation and hypotension. d) Direct myocardial damage from bacterial toxins.
सही उत्तर: ग) c
Option C is correct. Septic shock is primarily driven by a massive systemic inflammatory response to infection, resulting in widespread vasodilation and hypotension due to the release of cytokines. The other options represent alternative mechanisms of shock but do not fully capture the core pathophysiology of septic shock.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
-
Which physiological change primarily contributes to the development of anemia during pregnancy?
सही उत्तर: ख) Decreased plasma volume
The most significant factor contributing to physiological pregnancy anemia is a decrease in plasma volume (hypovolemia), leading to a lower concentration of hemoglobin. This results in a reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
-
A female patient presents with primary amenorrhoea accompanied by an absent uterus and upper vagina, normal breasts, and normal pubic hair. The karyotype reveals a 46,XX chromosomal makeup. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
सही उत्तर: क) Turner Syndrome
The presentation of primary amenorrhea with an absent uterus and upper vagina, along with a normal 46,XX karyotype strongly suggests Turner syndrome. In this condition, the presence of ovaries is confirmed, but they fail to develop properly.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
-
Colostrum is particularly rich in which of the following substances essential for newborn infant health?
सही उत्तर: ग) IgA (Immunoglobulin A)
Colostrum is exceptionally high in IgA, a crucial antibody that provides passive immunity to the newborn. While it contains other nutrients, the concentration of IgA is far higher than found in later lactation periods.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
-
A 5-year-old child presents with fever, lethargy, and a history of recent upper respiratory infection. Physical examination reveals palpable purpura on their buttocks and legs, along with arthralgia and abdominal pain. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?
सही उत्तर: ख) Henoch-Schönlein Purpura
Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP) is the most common vasculitis in children and classically presents with purpura, arthralgia, abdominal pain, and hematuria. It’s characterized by inflammation of small blood vessels. While the other conditions can have overlapping symptoms, HSP aligns best with this presentation.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
-
Which of the following accurately describes the typical timing of ovulation after the onset of a sustained LH surge?
सही उत्तर: ख) Approximately 36-48 hours later
Ovulation typically occurs around 24-48 hours following a sustained LH surge. The LH surge triggers ovulation, and the oocyte is usually released within this timeframe. A sustained surge indicates sufficient stimulation for ovulation to occur.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
-
What diagnostic test is MOST useful in determining the gestational age of a fetus based on its biparietal diameter (BPD)?
सही उत्तर: ग) C) Biparietal diameter (BPD)
Option C is correct. The BPD, measured on ultrasound, is the most reliable and commonly used parameter for estimating gestational age in fetuses, particularly in the second trimester. AFI and SPM are less accurate, while CRL becomes more variable later in pregnancy.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
-
A patient post-burn resuscitation develops an acute stress ulcer of the stomach. Which medication class is MOST appropriate as a first-line intervention to prevent further bleeding (2079)?
सही उत्तर: ख) Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPIs)
Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are the most effective in suppressing gastric acid secretion, thus preventing further ulcer formation and bleeding. NSAIDs can exacerbate ulcers. The other options would be less effective or contraindicated.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
यी अभ्यास प्रश्न हुन्, आधिकारिक प्रश्न होइनन्। पाठ्यक्रम, विज्ञापन र नतिजाका लागि सम्बन्धित निकायको आधिकारिक वेबसाइट हेर्नुहोस्। उत्तरमा गल्ती भेटे प्रश्नमुनिको "टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट" मा लेख्नुहोस्।
नमस्ते! पाठ्यक्रम, सामान्य ज्ञान, भाषा परीक्षा वा कुनै प्रश्नको उत्तर बुझ्न सोध्नुहोस्।
AI ले गल्ती गर्न सक्छ। महत्वपूर्ण कुरा आधिकारिक स्रोतमा जाँच्नुहोस्।