चिकित्सा स्नातकोत्तर प्रवेश (MECEE-PG) MD / MS / MDS प्रवेश परीक्षा तयारी
चिकित्सा स्नातकोत्तर प्रवेश (MECEE-PG) – MD / MS / MDS प्रवेश परीक्षा
MECEE-PG – MD/MS/MDS · MECEE-PG (MD/MS/MDS)
२,८६५ प्रश्न उपलब्ध। मोड छान्नुहोस्:
MD/MS/MDS प्रवेश: प्रश्न र उत्तर
सही लागेको विकल्पमा थिच्नुहोस्। सही भए हरियो, गलत भए रातो देखिन्छ; ३ सेकेन्डपछि सही उत्तर र व्याख्या देखिन्छ।
सही: ० / ०
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A patient presents with symptoms including muscle cramps, weakness, and confusion. Blood tests reveal elevated levels of creatine kinase (CK). Which biochemical pathway is MOST likely impaired?
सही उत्तर: क) a) Glycolysis
Option (c) – Oxidative phosphorylation – is the correct answer. Elevated CK levels strongly suggest a defect in the electron transport chain, directly impacting ATP production and causing the symptoms described. The other options represent different metabolic pathways that are not directly linked to CK elevation.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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The primary function of aldosterone in regulating blood pressure is achieved through which mechanism?
सही उत्तर: क) a) Directly increasing sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule
Option (a) is correct. Aldosterone promotes sodium reabsorption, which indirectly increases water retention and blood volume, thus elevating blood pressure. Options (b), (c), and (d) describe actions of other hormones or mechanisms related to blood pressure regulation.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following best describes the primary function of cytochrome oxidase in the electron transport chain?
सही उत्तर: क) a) To catalyze the binding of NADH to the mitochondrial membrane
Option (a) accurately describes cytochrome oxidase’s role – it specifically catalyzes the oxidation of NADH, transferring electrons to ubiquinol and maintaining the electrochemical gradient vital for ATP synthesis. Options (b) and (c) describe different steps in or components of the ETC. Option (d) is a general description of electron transport.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A 6-year-old child presents with severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and currant jelly stools. Examination reveals palpable loops of bowel in the right lower quadrant. Which surgical emergency is most likely?
सही उत्तर: घ) Intussusception
The combination of abdominal pain, vomiting, currant jelly stools, and palpable bowel loops strongly suggests intussusception – a telescoping of one part of the intestine into another. Todd's paralysis is related to ileus, not this presentation. Henoch-Schönlein Purpura causes purpuric rash, and Meckel's diverticulum typically doesn't present with these acute symptoms.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following best describes the surgical management approach to a traumatic diaphragmatic rupture?
सही उत्तर: क) Open Surgical Repair with Mesh Placement
Open surgical repair using mesh is the gold standard treatment for traumatic diaphragmatic ruptures, providing structural support and promoting healing. Other options are less effective or reserved for specific complications.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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What is the primary indication for performing a Whipple procedure (pancreaticoduodenectomy)?
सही उत्तर: ख) Management of Stage IV Pancreatic Cancer
The Whipple procedure is reserved for complex pancreatic resections, particularly those involving tumors at the head of the pancreas. While it can treat some related conditions, its primary role is resection of this specific anatomical area.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A patient presents with severe left lower quadrant pain, guarding, and rebound tenderness. Laboratory tests reveal a significant elevation in neutrophil counts. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
सही उत्तर: क) Appendicitis
Given the classic presentation – LLQ pain, guarding, rebound tenderness, and elevated neutrophils – appendicitis is the most probable diagnosis. Diverticulitis can mimic this but typically doesn’t present with such pronounced inflammatory signs. Meckel's diverticulum syndrome usually presents differently, and sigmoid volvulus is less likely.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A 5-year-old child presents with a sudden onset of fever followed by a bright red ‘slapped cheek’ rash and a lacy rash spreading down the limbs. Which infectious etiology is MOST likely responsible?
सही उत्तर: ग) Roseola infantum
The ‘slapped cheek’ rash is highly characteristic of rubella (German measles). Roseola presents with fever, but lacks the specific facial rash. Measles and varicella present with different rashes and associated symptoms.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A pregnant woman presents at 36 weeks gestation with severe oligohydramnios (less than 500 mL), pulmonary hypoplasia, and flattened facies in her fetus. Which clinical scenario is MOST consistent with this presentation?
सही उत्तर: ख) Biparietal twins
The Potter sequence (severe oligohydramnios, pulmonary hypoplasia, and flattened facies) is classically associated with oligohydramnios due to maternal positioning, resulting in compression of the fetal thorax and reduced placental perfusion. Gestational diabetes, biparietal twins and multiple gestations do not account for this presentation.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following findings would MOST strongly suggest a diagnosis of Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)?
सही उत्तर: क) A single palmar crease
The most common mechanism for Down syndrome is trisomy 21, characterized by an extra copy of chromosome 21. A single palmar crease and a prominent occiput are associated with other syndromes. Microcephaly and brushfield spots aren’t specific to Down syndrome.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
यी अभ्यास प्रश्न हुन्, आधिकारिक प्रश्न होइनन्। पाठ्यक्रम, विज्ञापन र नतिजाका लागि सम्बन्धित निकायको आधिकारिक वेबसाइट हेर्नुहोस्। उत्तरमा गल्ती भेटे प्रश्नमुनिको "टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट" मा लेख्नुहोस्।
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