स्त्री तथा प्रसूति र बाल रोग – ObGyn & Pediatrics MCQ
स्त्री तथा प्रसूति र बाल रोग – MD/MS प्रवेश
ObGyn & Pediatrics · MECEE-PG – MD/MS/MDS Entrance · ५९० प्रश्न
५९० प्रश्न उपलब्ध। मोड छान्नुहोस्:
स्त्री तथा प्रसूति र बाल रोग: प्रश्न र उत्तर
सही लागेको विकल्पमा थिच्नुहोस्। सही भए हरियो, गलत भए रातो देखिन्छ; ३ सेकेन्डपछि सही उत्तर र व्याख्या देखिन्छ।
सही: ० / ०
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A 6-year-old child presents with fever, rash, strawberry tongue, and conjunctivitis. Which diagnostic test would be MOST helpful in confirming the diagnosis?
सही उत्तर: घ) Serological testing for Coxsackie B virus
The clinical presentation – fever, rash, strawberry tongue, and conjunctivitis - is highly suggestive of Hand-Foot-and-Mouth Disease caused by Coxsackie B viruses. Serological tests are the most specific way to detect viral antibodies. CBC and urinalysis do not specifically identify this diagnosis.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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What is the primary mechanism of action for ibuprofen when treating postpartum pain?
सही उत्तर: ख) Non-steroidal Anti-inflammatory Drug (NSAID) activity reducing prostaglandin synthesis
Ibuprofen is an NSAID that primarily works by inhibiting cyclooxygenase enzymes, which are responsible for producing prostaglandins. Prostaglandins contribute significantly to pain and inflammation post-partum. The other options represent different mechanisms of analgesia.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A newborn infant presents with severe respiratory distress, cyanosis, and a characteristic 'olive-shaped' liver. Which of the following congenital heart defects is most likely?
सही उत्तर: घ) Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome
The 'olive-shaped' liver is a classic finding in coarctation of the aorta due to venous congestion. This condition compromises pulmonary blood flow and causes right ventricular hypertrophy, leading to this characteristic change. The other options present with different congenital heart defects and associated findings.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following conditions typically presents with a 'bull's eye' rash characterized by central clearing and subsequent peripheral edema?
सही उत्तर: ख) Measles
Measles is classically associated with the ‘bull’s eye’ rash. The other options present with distinct rashes or symptoms not matching this description. Measles is caused by the mumps virus.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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In a pregnant woman diagnosed with gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) at 24 weeks gestation, which of the following metabolic profiles would indicate the need for immediate intervention?
सही उत्तर: ग) Fasting plasma glucose: 180 mg/dL; HbA1c: 7.0%
An elevated fasting plasma glucose level of 180 mg/dL combined with an HbA1c of 7.0% indicates significant long-term hyperglycemia, signifying a progression to type 2 diabetes or substantial GDM that requires immediate intervention with insulin therapy.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A newborn infant has a large, firm, non-tender mass on one side of the neck. The mass is palpable but does not move with respiration. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
सही उत्तर: ख) Vascular birthmark (cavernous malformation)
A large, firm, non-tender neck mass in a newborn that doesn't move with respiration is most commonly a cavernous malformation, or vascular birthmark. These are congenital vascular abnormalities often presenting shortly after birth. Lymphadenopathy can be present but typically is tender and mobile.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A 6-year-old boy presents with fever, sore throat, and a sandpaper-like rash. Based on these findings, which of the following is the MOST immediate action to take?
सही उत्तर: ग) Perform a rapid strep test to confirm or rule out *Streptococcus pyogenes*
The clinical presentation of fever, sore throat, and sandpaper-like rash is highly suggestive of scarlet fever. A rapid strep test is the quickest and most reliable way to confirm *Streptococcus pyogenes* infection, which necessitates antibiotic therapy. Administering antibiotics immediately is critical in preventing complications.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A 32-year-old female presents to the clinic following a prolonged postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) after vaginal delivery. Initial assessment reveals no evidence of uterine atony, laceration, or retained placental fragments. Laboratory investigations show normal clotting parameters. What is the MOST likely underlying factor contributing to this PPH?
सही उत्तर: क) Uterine myomata (fibroids)
While various factors can contribute to PPH, uterine atony in the absence of obvious lacerations or retained products is frequently linked to subtle hormonal imbalances, specifically involving excess estrogen. Aromatase deficiency leads to decreased estrogen production and consequently, less contractile uterus tone. The other options are either unlikely given the scenario or have more specific presentations.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A newborn presents with respiratory distress, cyanosis, and a bounding pulse. Physical examination reveals a large patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). Which of the following interventions would be MOST appropriate as the initial management?
सही उत्तर: ख) Initiate indomethacin therapy to constrict the ductal smooth muscle
Indomethacin, a prostaglandin analogue, is the standard initial treatment for PDA by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis and causing vasoconstriction of the ductus arteriosus. The other options are either inappropriate or would only provide symptomatic relief without addressing the underlying problem. This aligns with established guidelines for managing neonatal PDA.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which diagnostic test is considered the ‘gold standard’ for confirming a diagnosis of Hirschsprung disease?
सही उत्तर: ग) Anorectal Manometry & Biopsy
Anorectal manometry followed by a biopsy of the distal colon, demonstrating the absence of ganglion cells, is the gold standard test for diagnosing Hirschsprung disease. The other options provide supporting information but are not definitive diagnostic procedures.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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