स्नातकोत्तर मेडिकल प्रवेश (MECEE-PG)
स्नातकोत्तर मेडिकल प्रवेश (MECEE-PG)
MECEE-PG – MD/MS/MDS Entrance · २,८६५ प्रश्न
२,८६५ प्रश्न उपलब्ध। मोड छान्नुहोस्:
MD/MS प्रवेश: प्रश्न र उत्तर
सही लागेको विकल्पमा थिच्नुहोस्। सही भए हरियो, गलत भए रातो देखिन्छ; ३ सेकेन्डपछि सही उत्तर र व्याख्या देखिन्छ।
सही: ० / ०
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A 10-year-old boy presents with delayed puberty. Physical examination reveals no pubic hair and testes are small. Further investigations reveal elevated levels of luteinizing hormone (LH). Which of the following conditions is MOST likely? (a) Klinefelter syndrome (b) Turner syndrome (c) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (d) Androgen insensitivity syndrome
सही उत्तर: ख) (b) Turner syndrome
Klinefelter syndrome (XXY karyotype) is characterized by delayed puberty, small testes, and elevated LH levels. Options (b), (c), and (d) have different primary hormonal imbalances that wouldn’t typically present with this combination of findings.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A 28-year-old female presents with acute onset lower abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and signs of hypovolemic shock. Initial assessment reveals a large ectopic pregnancy within the fallopian tube. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate immediate step? (a) Immediate surgical evacuation of the ectopic pregnancy (b) Administration of intravenous fluids and close monitoring for spontaneous resolution (c) Insertion of a Bakri balloon to reduce bleeding in the fallopian tube (d) Starting methotrexate therapy to induce tubal spasm
सही उत्तर: घ) (d) Starting methotrexate therapy to induce tubal spasm
The Bakri balloon is a well-established therapeutic intervention used to control bleeding from ruptured or impending rupture ectopic pregnancies, providing localized pressure and reducing hemorrhage. Option (a) is generally too aggressive initially; (b) relies on the condition resolving spontaneously which isn’t always successful. (d) methotrexate may be considered but usually after initial stabilization.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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The primary function of neutrophils in neonates is: (a) Antibody production (b) Phagocytosis of bacteria and debris (c) Stimulation of antibody response (d) Production of complement factors
सही उत्तर: ख) (b) Phagocytosis of bacteria and debris
Neutrophils are the most abundant white blood cell in newborns and play a crucial role in fighting bacterial infections through phagocytosis. Option (a) is incorrect as neutrophils do not produce antibodies. (c) is incorrect because neutrophils don’t stimulate antibody responses, and (d) is inaccurate.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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The hormone vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone - ADH), produced in the posterior pituitary gland, is released in response to:
सही उत्तर: क) A. Decreased plasma osmolarity
Vasopressin (option A) is released when plasma osmolarity increases (detected by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus), stimulating water reabsorption in the kidneys. Increased blood pressure, elevated potassium levels, and reduced GFR are not primary stimuli for ADH release.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following metabolic pathways is most directly regulated by insulin?
सही उत्तर: घ) D. Fatty acid synthesis
Lipolysis (option C) – the breakdown of fats – is a key target for insulin's action, as insulin promotes glucose uptake and reduces fat mobilization. The other options are not directly or primarily regulated by insulin.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following cell types primarily produces angiotensinogen, a key precursor in the renin-angiotensin system?
सही उत्तर: घ) D. Granulosa cells
Hepatocytes (option C) are responsible for synthesizing angiotensinogen, which is crucial for regulating blood pressure. Fibroblasts (option A), endothelial cells (option B), and granulosa cells (option D) do not play a primary role in angiotensinogen production.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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The ‘Kocher Maneuver’ is primarily utilized during laparoscopic cholecystectomy for which specific reason? a) To directly dissect the gallbladder from the liver bed. b) To create a wider exposure by mobilizing the retroperitoneum and facilitating retraction. c) To reduce pressure on the bile duct during dissection. d) To perform an intraoperative cholangiogram.
सही उत्तर: ख) b) To create a wider exposure by mobilizing the retroperitoneum and facilitating retraction.
The Kocher maneuver involves extensive mobilization of the retroperitoneum to achieve optimal visualization, facilitate gallbladder dissection, and provide space for retraction – significantly improving surgical access and safety.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following statements regarding disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) in trauma patients is MOST accurate? a) DIC always presents with prolonged bleeding. b) It’s characterized by a decrease in platelet count and fibrinogen levels. c) It represents a systemic inflammatory response leading to uncontrolled thrombus formation, ultimately causing microvascular thrombosis and bleeding. d) DIC is primarily caused by administration of intravenous antibiotics.
सही उत्तर: ग) c) It represents a systemic inflammatory response leading to uncontrolled thrombus formation, ultimately causing microvascular thrombosis and bleeding.
DIC's hallmark is the paradoxical consumption of clotting factors followed by widespread microthrombi, resulting in both bleeding and thrombosis. Options (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect descriptions of this complex syndrome.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following best describes the management approach to an acute appendicitis confirmed by CT scan in a stable patient? a) Immediate exploratory laparotomy. b) Conservative management with intravenous antibiotics and close observation. c) Percutaneous placement of a Jackson-Pratt drain. d) Endoscopic sphincterotomy followed by appendectomy.
सही उत्तर: ख) b) Conservative management with intravenous antibiotics and close observation.
The current standard of care for uncomplicated acute appendicitis in a stable patient is conservative management – IV antibiotics, fluids, and serial imaging. This minimizes the risk of surgical complications.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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The 'Blakstone's Fistula' is a communication between: a) The stomach and the duodenum. b) The transverse colon and the small intestine. c) The esophagus and the stomach. d) The rectum and the sigmoid colon.
सही उत्तर: ख) b) The transverse colon and the small intestine.
Blakstone's Fistula is a pathological communication between the transverse colon and the small intestine, often associated with Crohn’s disease. Options (a), (c) and (d) describe different gastrointestinal connections.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
यी अभ्यास प्रश्न हुन्, आधिकारिक प्रश्न होइनन्। पाठ्यक्रम, विज्ञापन र नतिजाका लागि सम्बन्धित निकायको आधिकारिक वेबसाइट हेर्नुहोस्। उत्तरमा गल्ती भेटे प्रश्नमुनिको "टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट" मा लेख्नुहोस्।
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