चिकित्सा स्नातकोत्तर प्रवेश (MECEE-PG) MD / MS / MDS प्रवेश परीक्षा तयारी
चिकित्सा स्नातकोत्तर प्रवेश (MECEE-PG) – MD / MS / MDS प्रवेश परीक्षा
MECEE-PG – MD/MS/MDS · MECEE-PG (MD/MS/MDS)
२,८६५ प्रश्न उपलब्ध। मोड छान्नुहोस्:
MD/MS/MDS प्रवेश: प्रश्न र उत्तर
सही लागेको विकल्पमा थिच्नुहोस्। सही भए हरियो, गलत भए रातो देखिन्छ; ३ सेकेन्डपछि सही उत्तर र व्याख्या देखिन्छ।
सही: ० / ०
-
A patient presents with significant muscle weakness in the lower limbs after a traumatic injury to the thigh. Histological examination reveals axonal degeneration primarily affecting motor neurons within the anterior horn of the spinal cord. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
सही उत्तर: घ) Motor Neuron Disease
The description – axonal degeneration in the anterior horn, lower limb weakness – aligns with Motor Neuron Disease (MND), also known as Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS). Guillain-Barré is an autoimmune disorder. Spinal Muscular Atrophy affects motor neuron development. Lambert-Eaton presents with muscle fasciculations.”} ，“questions”:[{
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
-
Which of the following findings would be MOST indicative of a disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) state?
सही उत्तर: ख) Decreased fibrinogen level
DIC is characterized by widespread activation of the clotting cascade leading to consumption of clotting factors, resulting in decreased fibrinogen levels. The other options represent normal responses or imbalances not characteristic of DIC.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
-
A 5-year-old child presents with intermittent abdominal pain, vomiting, and blood in his stool. Examination reveals a palpable mass in the right lower quadrant. What is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test?
सही उत्तर: घ) Abdominal Ultrasound
An abdominal ultrasound is the preferred initial investigation for suspected Meckel's diverticulum due to its accessibility and ability to visualize fluid-filled structures. CT or MRI are generally reserved for more complex cases, while endoscopy isn’t routinely used.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
-
What is the primary purpose of performing a Pringle manoeuvre during liver surgery?
सही उत्तर: ग) To control bleeding from the hepatic artery
The Pringle manoeuvre involves clamping the hepatic artery, specifically designed to temporarily reduce arterial inflow to the liver and thus control significant bleeding. The other options are incorrect as they relate to different surgical procedures.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
-
A patient presents with a palpable mass in their left upper quadrant and reports intermittent episodes of nausea and vomiting. Imaging reveals a cystic structure adjacent to the gallbladder. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?
सही उत्तर: ख) Cholecystitis
The presentation – palpable mass, nausea, vomiting, and cystic structure near the gallbladder – strongly suggests cholecystitis (inflammation of the gallbladder), often due to gallstones. While pancreatitis can present similarly, it typically lacks the distinct gallbladder location.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
-
Which of the following anatomical structures is most commonly affected in a patient presenting with sudden onset left flank pain radiating to the groin?
सही उत्तर: ग) Renal Pelvis
The renal pelvis is where ureteric stones typically form and cause severe, colicky flank pain that radiates to the groin. The hepatic artery supplies blood to the liver; the pancreatic duct drains pancreatic juice; and the duodenal cap is part of the duodenum.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
-
A 32-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester presents with painless, recurrent, bright red vaginal bleeding. The ultrasound reveals a gestational sac without fetal cardiac activity. What is the MOST likely diagnosis? (a) Placenta Previa (b) Complete Gestational Trophoblastic Abortion (c) Uterine Subinvolution (d) Cervical Cryptococcosis
सही उत्तर: ख) Complete Gestational Trophoblastic Abortion
(b) is correct. Painless, recurrent bright red vaginal bleeding with absent fetal heart sounds suggests complete gestational trophoblastic abortion (gestational choriocarcinoma). (a) presents with abdominal pain, (c) is associated with delayed uterine contractions and (d) causes symptoms related to a fungal infection in the central nervous system.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
-
A 10-year-old boy is brought to the clinic complaining of fatigue, bone pain, and recurrent fractures. Laboratory tests reveal a markedly low serum calcium level and elevated parathyroid hormone levels. What is the MOST likely diagnosis? (a) Rickets (b) Osteomalacia (c) Paget’s Disease of Bone (d) Hyperparathyroidism
सही उत्तर: घ) Hyperparathyroidism
(d) is correct. The combination of fatigue, bone pain, recurrent fractures and high parathyroid hormone levels are strongly indicative of primary hyperparathyroidism, which leads to excessive calcium release into the bloodstream. (a) and (b) are linked to vitamin D deficiency, while (c) causes generalized bone abnormalities without such specific parathyroid hormone elevation.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
-
A newborn infant is admitted to the neonatal unit exhibiting lethargy, poor feeding, and jaundice. Blood tests reveal a low level of conjugated bilirubin. The pediatrician suspects severe early-onset neonatal hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following interventions would be MOST appropriate? (a) Phototherapy with blue light. (b) Exchange transfusion. (c) Administration of intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG). (d) Oral iron supplementation.
सही उत्तर: क) Phototherapy with blue light
(a) is correct. Severe early-onset neonatal hyperbilirubinemia usually responds effectively to phototherapy, which utilizes blue light to convert bilirubin into a form that can be excreted in the urine. (b) and (c) are reserved for more severe cases, while (d) has no role in treating jaundice.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
-
A 28-year-old female presents with sudden onset of severe lower abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Upon examination, she has a positive Sims' sign. A urinalysis reveals proteinuria and hematuria. Which of the following conditions is MOST likely? (a) Ovarian Cyst Rupture (b) Ectopic Pregnancy (c) Acute Appendicitis (d) Urinary Tract Infection (UTI)
सही उत्तर: ख) Ectopic Pregnancy
(b) is correct. The sudden onset of severe lower abdominal pain, positive Sims' sign, proteinuria and hematuria strongly suggests ectopic pregnancy. (a) typically has more localized pain, (c) presents with right iliac fossa pain and (d) would not usually cause such marked urinary findings.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
यी अभ्यास प्रश्न हुन्, आधिकारिक प्रश्न होइनन्। पाठ्यक्रम, विज्ञापन र नतिजाका लागि सम्बन्धित निकायको आधिकारिक वेबसाइट हेर्नुहोस्। उत्तरमा गल्ती भेटे प्रश्नमुनिको "टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट" मा लेख्नुहोस्।
नमस्ते! पाठ्यक्रम, सामान्य ज्ञान, भाषा परीक्षा वा कुनै प्रश्नको उत्तर बुझ्न सोध्नुहोस्।
AI ले गल्ती गर्न सक्छ। महत्वपूर्ण कुरा आधिकारिक स्रोतमा जाँच्नुहोस्।