चिकित्सा स्नातकोत्तर प्रवेश (MECEE-PG) MD / MS / MDS प्रवेश परीक्षा तयारी
चिकित्सा स्नातकोत्तर प्रवेश (MECEE-PG) – MD / MS / MDS प्रवेश परीक्षा
MECEE-PG – MD/MS/MDS · MECEE-PG (MD/MS/MDS)
२,८६५ प्रश्न उपलब्ध। मोड छान्नुहोस्:
MD/MS/MDS प्रवेश: प्रश्न र उत्तर
सही लागेको विकल्पमा थिच्नुहोस्। सही भए हरियो, गलत भए रातो देखिन्छ; ३ सेकेन्डपछि सही उत्तर र व्याख्या देखिन्छ।
सही: ० / ०
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A patient presents with fever, chills, and skin lesions characterized by purpura and ulcers. Gram stain reveals the presence of non-motile, pleomorphic bacteria. Which of the following bacterial infections is MOST likely? (a) Tuberculosis (b) Anthrax (c) Syphilis (d) Brucellosis
सही उत्तर: ग) (c) Syphilis
The described presentation (purpura, ulcers, pleomorphic bacteria) is highly suggestive of Syphilis. Anthrax can present with similar lesions but typically involves lymph node involvement. Tuberculosis predominantly causes pulmonary pathology and doesn't typically manifest with skin ulcerations in this way. Brucellosis presents more commonly with systemic symptoms like fever and malaise, lacking the specific cutaneous findings.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following microscopic findings most strongly suggests the presence of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? (a) Granulocytic infiltration into lung tissue. (b) Presence of schistocytes in peripheral blood smear. (c) Increased number of lymphocytes in hepatic sinusoids. (d) Lipid-laden macrophages within Kupffer cells of the liver.
सही उत्तर: ख) (b) Presence of schistocytes in peripheral blood smear.
Schistocytes, fragmented red blood cells, are a hallmark finding in DIC due to microvascular thrombosis and subsequent lysis. Option (a) represents granulomatous inflammation, while (c) describes reactive lymphocytosis and (d) indicates steatosis. This aligns with established pathology of DIC.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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The “clock face” appearance seen on bone radiographs associated with osteomyelitis is most closely linked to which pathological process?
सही उत्तर: क) A. Bone necrosis due to ischemic injury.
Option 0 is correct – this appearance represents concentric lamellations of new bone formation around an area of old necrotic bone tissue, which is a hallmark of osteomyelitis. Options B, C and D present alternative causes for imaging findings in the bones, but do not explain the classic “clock face” pattern.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which histological finding would most strongly suggest the presence of a disseminated fungal infection, such as histoplasmosis?
सही उत्तर: ग) C. Thick-walled fungal hyphae extending into tissues.
Option 2 is the most accurate – the characteristic morphology of histoplasmosis is found in yeast cells exhibiting budding. Options A, B and D represent reactions that can be seen with fungal infections, but don't highlight the key morphological finding to diagnose this infection.””
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following statements accurately describes the mechanism by which penicillin inhibits bacterial growth?
सही उत्तर: क) A. Penicillin disrupts the synthesis of peptidoglycan, a key component of the bacterial cell wall.
Option A is correct – penicillin’s primary action is inhibiting peptidoglycan synthesis, vital for bacterial cell wall construction. Options B, C, and D describe alternative antimicrobial mechanisms that don't accurately represent penicillin's mode of action.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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The presence of ‘ghost cells’ in the liver biopsy indicates which pathological process?
सही उत्तर: ग) C. Ischemic injury resulting in cell death and phagocytosis.
Option 2 is correct – ghost cells are seen when neutrophils ingest dying hepatocytes. This reflects ischemic damage or inflammation within the liver. Options A, B, and D present plausible alternative causes for cell death in the liver, but do not explain the specific morphology of ghost cells.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which laboratory test is most useful in assessing for damage to the alveolar-capillary membrane during acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? (a) Complete Blood Count (CBC). (b) Serum Electrolytes. (c) Arterial Blood Gas Analysis (ABG). (d) Lung Water Measurement.
सही उत्तर: घ) (d) Lung Water Measurement.
Arterial blood gas analysis is essential to determine the severity of respiratory distress and assess the alveolar-capillary membrane damage due to oxygen diffusion impairment. While other tests provide useful information, ABG directly measures gas exchange - a key indicator of ARDS.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A patient diagnosed with hypertension has been prescribed lisinopril (an ACE inhibitor). Which of the following cellular mechanisms explains its primary antihypertensive effect? (a) Increased release of norepinephrine from sympathetic nerve terminals. (b) Inhibition of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE), leading to decreased vasoconstriction. (c) Direct stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors in cardiac myocytes. (d) Promotion of sodium reabsorption in the distal nephron.
सही उत्तर: ख) (b) Inhibition of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE), leading to decreased vasoconstriction.
Lisinopril inhibits ACE, which prevents the formation of Angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. This reduction in vasoconstriction leads to decreased blood pressure. The other options describe alternative mechanisms or drugs with different effects.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following findings would MOST strongly support a diagnosis of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? (a) Elevated serum levels of fibrinogen. (b) Presence of schistocytes on peripheral blood smear. (c) Decreased platelet count with normal white blood cell count. (d) Normal serum protein levels.
सही उत्तर: ग) (c) Decreased platelet count with normal white blood cell count.
Schistocytes (fragmented red blood cells) are a key finding in DIC, representing microangiopathic hemolytic anemia due to fibrin deposition within the microvasculature. This reflects the uncontrolled activation of coagulation pathways. Elevated fibrinogen is actually a late sign; platelet count reduction with normal WBC is indicative of increased consumption during clotting.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A patient presents with severe hypotension, bronchospasm, and urticaria following exposure to penicillin. The MOST likely pathophysiological mechanism driving this reaction is: (a) Stimulation of the vagus nerve leading to bradycardia. (b) Activation of mast cell degranulation releasing histamine and other mediators. (c) Direct myocardial ischemia due to vasoconstriction. (d) Autoimmune response targeting red blood cells.
सही उत्तर: ख) (b) Activation of mast cell degranulation releasing histamine and other mediators.
Penicillin reactions are primarily Type I hypersensitivity reactions mediated by IgE-mediated activation of mast cells, leading to the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators causing vasodilation, bronchospasm and hypotension. The other options represent alternative pathways of disease or responses.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
यी अभ्यास प्रश्न हुन्, आधिकारिक प्रश्न होइनन्। पाठ्यक्रम, विज्ञापन र नतिजाका लागि सम्बन्धित निकायको आधिकारिक वेबसाइट हेर्नुहोस्। उत्तरमा गल्ती भेटे प्रश्नमुनिको "टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट" मा लेख्नुहोस्।
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