स्नातकोत्तर मेडिकल प्रवेश (MECEE-PG)
स्नातकोत्तर मेडिकल प्रवेश (MECEE-PG)
MECEE-PG – MD/MS/MDS Entrance · २,८६५ प्रश्न
२,८६५ प्रश्न उपलब्ध। मोड छान्नुहोस्:
MD/MS प्रवेश: प्रश्न र उत्तर
सही लागेको विकल्पमा थिच्नुहोस्। सही भए हरियो, गलत भए रातो देखिन्छ; ३ सेकेन्डपछि सही उत्तर र व्याख्या देखिन्छ।
सही: ० / ०
-
Which of the following is a primary risk factor for congenital heart defects in newborns?
सही उत्तर: ग) C. Maternal diabetes mellitus and hypertension.
Option 2 is the most accurate answer because maternal diabetes and hypertension are established risk factors for congenital heart defects due to interference with fetal development. Option A is a general factor, but not specific to cardiac issues. Options C and D don't directly relate to this particular outcome.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
-
A newborn infant presents with respiratory distress, cyanosis, and a characteristic ‘rat-like’ squeak. Physical examination reveals bilateral nasal flaring and retractions. Which of the following conditions is MOST likely?
सही उत्तर: घ) D. Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS) due to surfactant deficiency.”
Option 3, PPHN, is correct as it fits the clinical picture - nasal flaring, retractions, and cyanosis are all hallmarks of this condition characterized by right-to-left shunting of blood. Options A and B present with different symptoms. Option D describes RDS but does not encompass the complete presentation described.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
-
Which of the following is the MOST accurate description of oligohydramnios in late pregnancy?
सही उत्तर: ख) B. A decrease in amniotic fluid volume below 300ml, potentially causing fetal distress and complications during labor.
Option B is correct because oligohydramnios refers to a deficiency of amniotic fluid and below 300ml is clinically significant in late pregnancy, potentially causing fetal distress. Option A misinterprets what causes an excessive fluid volume and option C describes polyhydramnios. Option D is incorrect as it states consistent normal levels.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
-
In the context of trauma, what does ‘Grey Area’ injury refer to?
सही उत्तर: ख) B) An injury involving significant blood loss with no identifiable source or a minimally demonstrable bleed.
Option (B) correctly defines ‘Grey Area’ injuries – those with significant blood loss but no obvious source or a minimal bleed. This necessitates extensive investigation to locate and control the bleeding effectively.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
-
Which of the following is the MOST accurate description of the surgical technique used for a Whipple procedure (pancreaticoduodenectomy)?
सही उत्तर: ख) B) Removal of the head of the pancreas, duodenum, common bile duct, and gallbladder with reconstruction using termino-lateral or Billroth II techniques.
Option (B) is correct. The Whipple procedure involves removing these structures and reconstructing the digestive system. Options A (minimally invasive only) and C(side-to-side anastomosis alone) are overly simplified while option D describes a different surgical approach.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
-
What is the key differentiating factor between an appendiceal abscess and a tubo-ovarian abscess (TOA)?
सही उत्तर: ख) B) Appendiceal abscesses typically arise from ascending infection, while TOAs result from pelvic inflammatory disease and often involve multiple structures.
Option (B) accurately reflects the etiology. Appendiceal abscesses result from ascendin infections while TOAs arise due to PID and can involve multiple structures. Options A and C are incorrect; antibiotic success varies, and size alone isn't diagnostically defining.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
-
The surgical management of a sigmoid colon volvulus typically involves:
सही उत्तर: ख) B) Exploration and untangling of the bowel followed by resection of affected segment.
The correct answer is (B), as sigmoid volvulus requires surgical intervention – exploration and untangling. Option A is a supportive measure but not the primary treatment. Option C describes endoscopic management, while option D addresses symptoms without resolving the underlying cause.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
-
A pregnant woman presents with symptoms suggestive of gestational diabetes mellitus. Which of the following blood glucose levels, as determined by an IADPSG-compliant 75g OGTT, would confirm the diagnosis?
सही उत्तर: ग) Fasting: 100 mg/dL; 1 hour: 140 mg/dL
According to IADPSG criteria, gestational diabetes is diagnosed when fasting plasma glucose exceeds 95 mg/dL and 1-hour postprandial glucose exceeds 130mg/dL.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
-
Which of the following findings on a newborn’s examination would MOST strongly suggest hyperthyroidism?
सही उत्तर: क) Paddling Foot
The ‘paddling foot’ is a classic sign of hyperthyroidism in newborns, due to increased neuromuscular excitability. Cranial synostosis relates to skull development. Frosted appendages refers to cold hands and feet due to vasoconstriction, and a protruding tongue can be associated with many conditions.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
-
A 32-year-old female presents with recurrent episodes of painless vaginal bleeding in the second trimester, along with cervical dilatation without any evidence of infection. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?
सही उत्तर: ख) Cervical Insufficiency
Cervical insufficiency is strongly associated with recurrent painless bleeding and cervical dilatation in the second trimester. Placenta previa involves bleeding from the implantation site, Infection usually presents with signs of infection. Subchorionic hemorrhage can cause bleeding but typically doesn't involve dilation.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
यी अभ्यास प्रश्न हुन्, आधिकारिक प्रश्न होइनन्। पाठ्यक्रम, विज्ञापन र नतिजाका लागि सम्बन्धित निकायको आधिकारिक वेबसाइट हेर्नुहोस्। उत्तरमा गल्ती भेटे प्रश्नमुनिको "टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट" मा लेख्नुहोस्।
नमस्ते! पाठ्यक्रम, सामान्य ज्ञान, भाषा परीक्षा वा कुनै प्रश्नको उत्तर बुझ्न सोध्नुहोस्।
AI ले गल्ती गर्न सक्छ। महत्वपूर्ण कुरा आधिकारिक स्रोतमा जाँच्नुहोस्।