सर्जरी – Surgery MCQ
सर्जरी – MD/MS प्रवेश
Surgery · MECEE-PG – MD/MS/MDS Entrance · ४८२ प्रश्न
४८२ प्रश्न उपलब्ध। मोड छान्नुहोस्:
सर्जरी: प्रश्न र उत्तर
सही लागेको विकल्पमा थिच्नुहोस्। सही भए हरियो, गलत भए रातो देखिन्छ; ३ सेकेन्डपछि सही उत्तर र व्याख्या देखिन्छ।
सही: ० / ०
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What is the primary indication for performing a Whipple procedure (pancreaticoduodenectomy)?
सही उत्तर: ख) Management of Stage IV Pancreatic Cancer
The Whipple procedure is reserved for complex pancreatic resections, particularly those involving tumors at the head of the pancreas. While it can treat some related conditions, its primary role is resection of this specific anatomical area.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A patient presents with severe left lower quadrant pain, guarding, and rebound tenderness. Laboratory tests reveal a significant elevation in neutrophil counts. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
सही उत्तर: क) Appendicitis
Given the classic presentation – LLQ pain, guarding, rebound tenderness, and elevated neutrophils – appendicitis is the most probable diagnosis. Diverticulitis can mimic this but typically doesn’t present with such pronounced inflammatory signs. Meckel's diverticulum syndrome usually presents differently, and sigmoid volvulus is less likely.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses neurological function. The minimum possible score, indicating complete unconsciousness, is which of the following?
सही उत्तर: ख) 4
The Glasgow Coma Scale utilizes a three-part assessment: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. A score of 3 signifies no discernible responses in any of these categories, indicating complete unconsciousness. Options 4, 5, and 6 represent levels of responsiveness within the scale where some neurological function is still detected.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following best describes the primary mechanism of action of a Whipple procedure (pancreaticoduodenectomy)? (a) Removal of the entire pancreas and adjacent structures. (b) Resection of the head of the pancreas, duodenum, distal portion of the common bile duct, and proximal part of the jejunum. (c) Surgical closure of a perforated bowel with primary anastomosis. (d) Reconstruction of the esophagus using a graft from the colon.
सही उत्तर: ख) (b) Resection of the head of the pancreas, duodenum, distal portion of the common bile duct, and proximal part of the jejunum.
The Whipple procedure specifically targets the head of the pancreas, duodenum, and distal biliary tract, reflecting its use in treating cancers and severe pancreatitis. Options (a) and (c) represent broader surgical approaches, while (d) describes esophageal reconstruction.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A 65-year-old patient sustains severe burns covering approximately 30% of his total body surface area (TBSA). Using the Parkland formula, what initial fluid resuscitation volume should be administered over the first eight hours? (Assume a burn rate of 10 mL/mL/hour)
सही उत्तर: घ) D. 9000 ml
The Parkland formula dictates administering 4 ml/ % TBSA/hr for the first eight hours. For a 30% TBSA burn, this equates to 30 * 4 = 120 ml/hr * 8 hours = 960 ml over the first 8 hrs. The provided options have been rounded up to reflect the process.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following techniques is MOST commonly used to diagnose appendicitis?
सही उत्तर: ग) C. Ultrasound examination of the abdomen
While other imaging modalities can be used, a CT scan with intravenous and oral contrast is considered the gold standard for diagnosing appendicitis because it offers high sensitivity and specificity in identifying inflammation and potential complications like abscess formation. It quickly detects features typical of acute appendicitis
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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What is the significance of 'Grey Turner's Sign'?
सही उत्तर: ख) B. A bluish discoloration of the flanks caused by retroperitoneal hemorrhage, often associated with kidney injuries
Grey Turner's sign is characterized by a sudden appearance of blue-grey discoloration of the flanks, typically due to retroperitoneal hemorrhage – often seen in severe kidney injuries following blunt abdominal trauma. It’s not related to any specific surgical condition.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A patient presents with significant abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting following a recent bout of diarrhea. Initial laboratory results show elevated amylase and lipase levels. Which of the following is the MOST immediate management step?
सही उत्तर: ख) B. Initiate intravenous fluid resuscitation and electrolyte correction
In acute pancreatitis, the primary concern is dehydration and electrolyte imbalance due to significant fluid loss through vomiting. Initial management focuses on supportive care – IV fluids and electrolytes are crucial before investigating the cause. CT scans are typically delayed until stabilization.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following structures is primarily responsible for the sensation of touch and pressure in the hand?
सही उत्तर: ख) B. Median Nerve
The median nerve, specifically its branches (e.g., the posterior interosseous nerve), carries sensory information related to fine touch and pressure in the hand’s palm and fingers. The ulnar and radial nerves primarily transmit motor functions and some sensory aspects like pain and temperature.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following is a typical radiological finding associated with bowel obstruction caused by volvulus (twisting of the intestine)?
सही उत्तर: ख) A ‘coffee-table’ appearance in the abdomen
The ‘coffee-table’ appearance, where the bowel loops appear smooth and evenly spaced with air lucencies between them, is a hallmark sign of volvulus. This indicates the intestine has been twisted, preventing normal passage of contents. The other options represent different pathological processes within the bowel.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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