सर्जरी – Surgery MCQ
सर्जरी – MD/MS प्रवेश
Surgery · MECEE-PG – MD/MS/MDS Entrance · ४८२ प्रश्न
४८२ प्रश्न उपलब्ध। मोड छान्नुहोस्:
सर्जरी: प्रश्न र उत्तर
सही लागेको विकल्पमा थिच्नुहोस्। सही भए हरियो, गलत भए रातो देखिन्छ; ३ सेकेन्डपछि सही उत्तर र व्याख्या देखिन्छ।
सही: ० / ०
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A 68-year-old male presents with jaundice, right upper quadrant pain, and elevated liver enzymes. Imaging reveals an obstruction at the bifurcation of the common hepatic duct (hilum). What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
सही उत्तर: क) Cholangitis
The description – obstruction at the hilum and elevated liver enzymes – strongly suggests a cholangiocarcinoma. The other options present alternative causes of jaundice but don’t fit this specific presentation.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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In the context of trauma assessment, which of the following findings would MOST strongly indicate the presence of a splenic injury?
सही उत्तर: घ) Localized pain upon palpation of the left iliac crest
Left shoulder-tip pain (Kehr's sign) is a classic symptom associated with splenic injury due to diaphragmatic irritation. The other options represent possible, but not definitively splenic, findings.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following surgical maneuvers is MOST appropriate for managing significant bleeding from a friable liver tumor during resection?
सही उत्तर: ग) Utilization of warm clamping and sutures at multiple levels
Electrocautery is the standard initial approach to hemostasis in liver surgery due to its ability to effectively coagulate small vessels. The other options are either less effective or introduce significant risk of damage.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A patient presents with severe abdominal pain and guarding. FAST examination reveals free fluid in the peritoneal cavity. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?
सही उत्तर: ख) Appendicitis
The presence of free fluid on FAST strongly suggests peritonitis, most commonly due to appendicitis. While the other options can cause abdominal pain and guarding, they don’t typically present with free peritoneal fluid as the initial finding.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following best describes the primary difference between a scleroma and a keloid?
सही उत्तर: क) Scleroma is characterized by raised, erythematous lesions while a keloid demonstrates exaggerated collagen deposition forming a firm nodule.
The correct answer highlights the key distinction: raised, erythematous lesions versus exaggerated collagen deposition – a defining feature of keloids. The other options present plausible but inaccurate details about scleroma or keloid characteristics.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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In the context of trauma, what does ‘Grey Area’ injury refer to?
सही उत्तर: ख) B) An injury involving significant blood loss with no identifiable source or a minimally demonstrable bleed.
Option (B) correctly defines ‘Grey Area’ injuries – those with significant blood loss but no obvious source or a minimal bleed. This necessitates extensive investigation to locate and control the bleeding effectively.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following is the MOST accurate description of the surgical technique used for a Whipple procedure (pancreaticoduodenectomy)?
सही उत्तर: ख) B) Removal of the head of the pancreas, duodenum, common bile duct, and gallbladder with reconstruction using termino-lateral or Billroth II techniques.
Option (B) is correct. The Whipple procedure involves removing these structures and reconstructing the digestive system. Options A (minimally invasive only) and C(side-to-side anastomosis alone) are overly simplified while option D describes a different surgical approach.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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What is the key differentiating factor between an appendiceal abscess and a tubo-ovarian abscess (TOA)?
सही उत्तर: ख) B) Appendiceal abscesses typically arise from ascending infection, while TOAs result from pelvic inflammatory disease and often involve multiple structures.
Option (B) accurately reflects the etiology. Appendiceal abscesses result from ascendin infections while TOAs arise due to PID and can involve multiple structures. Options A and C are incorrect; antibiotic success varies, and size alone isn't diagnostically defining.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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The surgical management of a sigmoid colon volvulus typically involves:
सही उत्तर: ख) B) Exploration and untangling of the bowel followed by resection of affected segment.
The correct answer is (B), as sigmoid volvulus requires surgical intervention – exploration and untangling. Option A is a supportive measure but not the primary treatment. Option C describes endoscopic management, while option D addresses symptoms without resolving the underlying cause.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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What is the primary clinical feature observed during the assessment of a patient presenting with Boerhaave syndrome?
सही उत्तर: क) Sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and nausea
The correct answer is 'Spontaneous full-thickness rupture of the oesophagus after forceful vomiting'. Boerhaave syndrome specifically refers to this event. The other options represent different complications of vomiting, but do not define the core diagnostic feature.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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