सर्जरी – Surgery MCQ
सर्जरी – MD/MS प्रवेश
Surgery · MECEE-PG – MD/MS/MDS Entrance · ४८२ प्रश्न
४८२ प्रश्न उपलब्ध। मोड छान्नुहोस्:
सर्जरी: प्रश्न र उत्तर
सही लागेको विकल्पमा थिच्नुहोस्। सही भए हरियो, गलत भए रातो देखिन्छ; ३ सेकेन्डपछि सही उत्तर र व्याख्या देखिन्छ।
सही: ० / ०
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A patient undergoes a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Post-operatively, they develop symptoms consistent with biliary colic – severe right upper quadrant pain radiating to the back, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Which of the following is the *most* likely immediate cause?
सही उत्तर: ख) B) Bile Duct Injury
Following cholecystectomy, particularly laparoscopic, there’s a risk of bile duct injury. This often manifests with biliary colic symptoms mimicking acute cholecystitis. The other options represent potential long-term complications but are less likely to present so acutely following surgery.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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What is the primary purpose of performing a Jackson-Edwards catheterization in patients suspected of having cardiac tamponade?
सही उत्तर: ग) C) To determine the degree of fluid accumulation in the pericardial sac and assess hemodynamic status
The Jackson-Edwards catheter, also known as a Murray catheter, is designed to measure central venous pressure (CVP). Elevated CVP suggests pericardial effusion which leads to cardiac tamponade. This information helps confirm the diagnosis and guide treatment.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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What is the most significant difference between acute cholecystitis and choledocholithiasis?
सही उत्तर: क) A) Acute cholecystitis involves inflammation of the gallbladder, while choledocholithiasis involves gallstones in the common bile duct
The fundamental distinction lies in the anatomical location and pathophysiology. Acute cholecystitis involves inflammation within the gallbladder itself, causing pain and potential complications like infection. Choledocholithiasis specifically refers to gallstones obstructing the common bile duct, leading to jaundice and biliary spasms.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following best describes the primary mechanism of action for an antibiotic like metronidazole in treating anaerobic bacterial infections?
सही उत्तर: घ) D) Selective toxicity against anaerobic metabolic pathways
Metronidazole targets anaerobic bacteria by inhibiting their energy metabolism, specifically interfering with the conversion of tetrahydrofolate to dihydrofolate, which is crucial for DNA and RNA synthesis. Options A, B and C describe mechanisms used by other antibiotics that don't specifically address the unique needs of anaerobic organisms.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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What is the primary purpose of performing a 'Kelly Excision' in surgical procedures? (A) To create a watertight closure of the skin edges after incision. (B) To facilitate the healing process by promoting granulation tissue formation. (C) To sterilize the wound margins and prevent infection. (D) To reduce scarring by minimizing tension on the epithelial layer.
सही उत्तर: ग) To sterilize the wound margins and prevent infection.
Kelly Excision involves burying the initial surgical incision within the deep tissues of the skin, essentially creating a sterile, non-adhering wound bed. This process is done to minimize scar tissue formation and promote efficient healing. Option A describes suture closure, B refers to granulation; C refers to antiseptic measures, and D addresses scarring reduction but not the core purpose.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A patient presents with significant rectal bleeding and a palpable mass near the anus. Imaging reveals a large, inflamed sigmoid colon. Which of the following surgical interventions would be most appropriate? (A) Colectomy with anastomosis. (B) Sigmoidectomy. (C) Hemicolectomy. (D) Total colectomy.
सही उत्तर: ख) Sigmoidectomy.
Given the presentation of significant rectal bleeding and a palpable mass along with inflammation of the sigmoid colon, a sigmoidectomy (removal of the sigmoid colon) is the most appropriate surgical intervention to address this condition. This option represents a standard procedure for sigmoid diverticulitis or cancer within that region. The other options represent broader colectomies which are less targeted.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in managing a patient presenting with acute abdominal pain and suspected small bowel obstruction? (A) Immediate administration of intravenous antibiotics. (B) Urgent surgical exploration of the abdomen under general anesthesia. (C) Focused assessment with directed ultrasound (FAUS) to identify the cause of obstruction. (D) Prompt initiation of nasogastric suctioning to relieve pressure.
सही उत्तर: ग) Focused assessment with directed ultrasound (FAUS) to identify the cause of obstruction.
In suspected small bowel obstruction, focused assessment with directed ultrasound (FAUS) is typically the first step for diagnosis. It helps in identifying the location and cause of the obstruction. Surgical exploration is a later step after confirmation by imaging. Options A and D are not standard initial management.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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The surgical procedure known as 'Laparoscopic Cholecystectomy' primarily aims to: (A) Remove the appendix following acute appendicitis. (B) Extract tissue samples for pathological analysis of the stomach. (C) Surgically remove the gallbladder via small incisions using minimally invasive techniques. (D) Repair damage to the esophagus caused by corrosive substances.
सही उत्तर: ग) Surgically remove the gallbladder via small incisions using minimally invasive techniques.
Laparoscopic cholecystectomy involves removing the gallbladder through small incisions and utilizes laparoscopic technology. This accurately reflects the procedure's primary goal. Options A describes an appendectomy, B refers to a biopsy, and D is related to esophagus repair.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following is the most accurate description of a 'transient ischemic attack (TIA)'? (A) A permanent neurological deficit resulting from cerebral infarction. (B) Temporary neurological symptoms caused by insufficient blood flow to the brain, resolving within 24 hours. (C) Chronic inflammation of the meninges leading to neurological dysfunction. (D) A rapidly progressing malignant tumor affecting the central nervous system.
सही उत्तर: ख) A permanent neurological deficit resulting from cerebral infarction.
A TIA (Transient Ischemic Attack) is defined as temporary symptoms of stroke due to reduced blood flow to the brain. Option A correctly describes this transient nature and cause. Options B and D are incorrect because a TIA does not last permanently, and it isn't a tumor. Option C describes meningitis.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A 30-year-old female presents after a motor vehicle accident with significant pelvic fractures. Imaging reveals evidence of bowel perforation. Which clinical finding would be MOST critical to assess immediately?
सही उत्तर: क) Absent femoral pulses
Absent femoral pulses is the most immediate and critical indicator of vascular compromise in a patient with pelvic fractures, particularly with bowel perforation, representing potential for hemorrhagic shock.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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