सर्जरी – Surgery MCQ
सर्जरी – MD/MS प्रवेश
Surgery · MECEE-PG – MD/MS/MDS Entrance · ४८२ प्रश्न
४८२ प्रश्न उपलब्ध। मोड छान्नुहोस्:
सर्जरी: प्रश्न र उत्तर
सही लागेको विकल्पमा थिच्नुहोस्। सही भए हरियो, गलत भए रातो देखिन्छ; ३ सेकेन्डपछि सही उत्तर र व्याख्या देखिन्छ।
सही: ० / ०
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A patient presents with intermittent epigastric pain that is frequently triggered by fatty meals. Examination reveals a palpable mass in the upper abdomen and an elevated amylase level. Which surgical intervention is MOST likely indicated?
सही उत्तर: क) Cholecystectomy
Cholecystectomy (option 0) is the most likely indication given the patient’s symptoms (epigastric pain after fatty meals), palpable mass, and elevated amylase level. These findings strongly suggest gallstones and cholecystitis. The other options are less consistent with this clinical presentation.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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What is the primary diagnostic criterion for determining the presence of a Ladd's Bands following an appendectomy?
सही उत्तर: ख) Measurement of the angle between the ascending and transverse colon
The primary diagnostic criterion (option 1) is the measurement of the angle between the ascending and transverse colon – typically greater than or equal to 90 degrees. This angle represents the fixation of the appendix to the retrocecal pouch, which is characteristic of Ladd’s bands. The other options are either indirect indicators or related to different post-operative complications.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A patient presents with a slowly growing mass on their upper lip. The mass is mobile and occasionally bleeds when manipulated. Which of the following diagnoses is MOST consistent with this presentation?
सही उत्तर: ख) Hemangioma
A mobile, bleeding mass on the upper lip, particularly in a young individual, strongly suggests a mucocele – a benign cyst formed by mucus retention. Hemangiomas are generally congenital and not typically mobile; fibromas and verrucae aren’t commonly located here.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following statements regarding Post-Splenectomy Infection (PSI) is MOST accurate?
सही उत्तर: घ) The risk is highest within 72 hours post-splenectomy
The highest risk of OPSI occurs within 72 hours following splenectomy, due to transient reduction in antibody levels. *Pseudomonas* is a common pathogen but not the most frequent. Streptococcus pneumoniae and children under 5 are not specifically associated with PSI.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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What anatomical landmark serves as the approximate location for performing an inferior vena cava filter placement?
सही उत्तर: ख) Right atrium of the heart
The right atrium is the standard site for inferior vena cava filter insertion. The superior mesenteric artery is in the ileum, and the aortic bifurcation and left renal vein are located distally.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A 25-year-old female undergoes exploratory laparotomy for suspected ovarian torsion. During the procedure, a large mucinous cystadenoma is discovered attached to the hilum of the ovary. What is the most appropriate initial management? a) Immediate surgical removal of the entire ovary due to the risk of recurrence. b) Conservative management with observation and pain control, followed by potential surgical removal if symptoms persist. c) Injection of hyaluronidase into the cyst to reduce its size before elective surgery. d) Placement of a Foley catheter to monitor ovarian volume.
सही उत्तर: ग) c) Injection of hyaluronidase into the cyst to reduce its size before elective surgery.
Option B is correct because mucinous cystadenomas often resolve spontaneously with conservative management and observation. Option A would be overly aggressive. Option C uses an inappropriate method for managing this particular condition, and option D offers no clinical benefit.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following surgical procedures is MOST commonly associated with the “Whipple procedure” (pancreaticoduodenectomy)? a) Liver Resection for Hepatocellular Carcinoma. b) Removal of the Gallbladder for Cholelithiasis. c) Surgical management of pancreatic head cancer, including removal of the head of the pancreas, duodenum, distal stomach, and common bile duct. d) Treatment of a complicated bowel obstruction.
सही उत्तर: घ) d) Treatment of a complicated bowel obstruction.
Option C is correct as it defines the primary indication for the Whipple procedure – surgical resection of pancreatic head tumors. Options A and B describe different surgical procedures; D does not align with the scope of the surgery.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A 65-year-old male presents with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain, rigidity, and guarding. Physical examination reveals rebound tenderness in the right lower quadrant. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis? a) Viral Gastroenteritis b) Acute Cholecystitis c) Small Bowel Obstruction d) Diverticulitis
सही उत्तर: ग) c) Small Bowel Obstruction
Option B is the most appropriate response because acute cholecystitis presents with sudden, severe right upper quadrant pain (often radiating to the back), abdominal rigidity, and rebound tenderness – all classic signs. The other options are less likely given the clinical presentation.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following statements accurately reflects the typical presentation and initial management of acute appendicitis? a) Delayed diagnosis due to atypical symptoms often leading to spontaneous resolution. b) Immediate administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics followed by exploratory laparotomy. c) Right lower quadrant pain, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and a positive McBurney's point – often managed conservatively with IV fluids and analgesics initially. d) Atypical presentations involving diffuse abdominal pain, requiring imaging studies like CT scans for diagnosis.
सही उत्तर: घ) d) Atypical presentations involving diffuse abdominal pain, requiring imaging studies like CT scans for diagnosis.
Option C is correct as it describes the classic presentation of acute appendicitis including the McBurney’s point. Option A mistakenly suggests spontaneous resolution – which doesn't happen. Option B outlines an inappropriate initial management strategy that is rarely used today. Option D misrepresents typical symptoms and diagnostic approaches.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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The primary goal of a Jackson-Edwards suction technique during exploratory laparotomy is to reduce intra-abdominal pressure and facilitate visualization. Which of the following best describes its application? a) To directly remove blood clots from surgical fields. b) To create a vacuum effect for efficient fluid removal. c) To assist in hemostasis by suctioning away bleeding points. d) To minimize contamination during procedures involving open wounds.
सही उत्तर: ग) c) To assist in hemostasis by suctioning away bleeding points.
Option C is correct because the Jackson-Edwards technique utilizes suction to control bleeding and reduce pressure, directly aiding hemostasis – stopping blood loss. Option A describes clot removal using a different method (e.g., electrocautery). Option B is incorrect as it describes the vacuum effect without referencing the specific surgical technique. Option D misinterprets the goal of the technique.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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