सर्जरी – Surgery MCQ
सर्जरी – MD/MS प्रवेश
Surgery · MECEE-PG – MD/MS/MDS Entrance · ४८२ प्रश्न
४८२ प्रश्न उपलब्ध। मोड छान्नुहोस्:
सर्जरी: प्रश्न र उत्तर
सही लागेको विकल्पमा थिच्नुहोस्। सही भए हरियो, गलत भए रातो देखिन्छ; ३ सेकेन्डपछि सही उत्तर र व्याख्या देखिन्छ।
सही: ० / ०
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A patient presents with chronic anal pain and discharge. Examination reveals an external anal opening located 3cm anterior to the midline. Based on Goodall's rule, what is the most likely diagnosis? (2023)
सही उत्तर: ख) B) Fistula-in-ano
Option 1 is correct. Goodall’s rule states that a fistula-in-ano with an external opening anterior to the transverse perineum indicates a left-sided fistula. Hemorrhoids and anal fissures have openings at or posterior to this location, while Crohn's disease would typically present with more diffuse inflammation.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following clinical scenarios is most indicative of an extradural hematoma? (2023)
सही उत्तर: क) A) Sudden onset of severe headache accompanied by pupillary signs of anisocoria
Option A is correct. An extradural hematoma typically presents with acute, severe headache often described as ‘the worst headache of my life,’ accompanied by ipsilateral pupil dilation (Horner’s syndrome) due to compression of the oculomotor nerve. Options B and C represent other neurological conditions, and D is not a typical presentation.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A patient presents with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting after a forceful retching episode. Imaging reveals a dilated stomach and a thickened esophagus. Which condition best describes this clinical presentation? (2023)
सही उत्तर: ख) B) Boerhaave Syndrome
The correct answer is B, Boerhaave syndrome. This condition involves a spontaneous full-thickness rupture of the esophagus following forceful vomiting, leading to esophageal perforation and subsequent complications. Options A, C, and D represent different gastrointestinal disorders that wouldn’t typically present with this specific mechanism.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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What is the primary anatomical reason for the most common site of ureteric stone obstruction? (2023)
सही उत्तर: ख) B) Narrowing of the renal pelvis due to congenital abnormalities
Option 1 is correct. The most common site of ureteric stone obstruction is the distal ureter near the pelvic brim, where the ureter passes through the iliac vessels. This area is inherently narrow and prone to compression due to congenital anatomical variations. Options A, C, and D are not primary contributing factors.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following findings would most strongly suggest an acute appendicitis in a patient presenting with right lower quadrant pain? (2023)
सही उत्तर: ग) C) Marked tenderness at McBurney's point accompanied by rebound tenderness
The correct answer is C. McBurney’s point is a landmark used to locate the appendix, and marked tenderness there (especially with rebound tenderness) is highly indicative of acute appendicitis. Option A is unrelated, B is diagnostic of pancreatic issues, and D reflects a normal inflammatory response.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following interventions is MOST appropriate for managing severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) secondary to pneumonia?
सही उत्तर: ख) B) Early initiation of neuromuscular blockade.
Early initiation of neuromuscular blockade is crucial in ARDS to prevent ventilator-induced lung injury (VILI). Prolonged ventilation with high tidal volumes is the opposite approach and detrimental. While other interventions may be part of management, NM blockade is the most critical initial step.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A 65 year old patient presents with a palpable mass in the left groin, which is reducible. Palpation reveals tenderness over the inguinal ligament. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?
सही उत्तर: क) A) Spermatic Cord Hernia.
A spermatic cord hernia (inguinal hernia) is the most common type of inguinal hernia presenting with a reducible mass and tenderness over the inguinal ligament. A femoral hernia would present differently, and an abscess or lymphadenopathy wouldn’t typically have this presentation.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which surgical technique is MOST commonly used for the treatment of symptomatic carpal tunnel syndrome?
सही उत्तर: ग) C) Flexor Sheath Cross Compression.
Flexor sheath cross compression is the gold standard surgical procedure for carpal tunnel syndrome as it directly addresses the compression of the median nerve. The other options are alternative techniques but less commonly used.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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The most common type of hiatus hernia typically presents with symptoms of which of the following?
सही उत्तर: ख) Dysphagia and Retrosternal Chest Pain
Option 1 is correct. The classic presentation of a hiatus hernia involves dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) and retrosternal chest pain, frequently accompanied by heartburn. Options 2,3 and 4 describe symptoms associated with other gastrointestinal conditions, not typically linked to a simple hiatus hernia.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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What constitutes the 'Saint's Triad' for diagnosing Acute Pancreatitis?
सही उत्तर: ख) Elevated Serum Lipase, Abdominal Pain, Absence of Fever
Option 1 is correct. The Saint's triad – abdominal pain, elevated serum lipase, and absence of fever – provides strong evidence for acute pancreatitis. Lipase is more specific than amylase. The other options contain elements but do not form the complete clinical picture.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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