चिकित्सा स्नातकोत्तर प्रवेश (MECEE-PG) MD / MS / MDS प्रवेश परीक्षा तयारी
चिकित्सा स्नातकोत्तर प्रवेश (MECEE-PG) – MD / MS / MDS प्रवेश परीक्षा
MECEE-PG – MD/MS/MDS · MECEE-PG (MD/MS/MDS)
२,८६५ प्रश्न उपलब्ध। मोड छान्नुहोस्:
MD/MS/MDS प्रवेश: प्रश्न र उत्तर
सही लागेको विकल्पमा थिच्नुहोस्। सही भए हरियो, गलत भए रातो देखिन्छ; ३ सेकेन्डपछि सही उत्तर र व्याख्या देखिन्छ।
सही: ० / ०
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Which of the following processes is *most* directly responsible for the regulation of blood pressure by the sympathetic nervous system?
सही उत्तर: क) Release of insulin from the pancreas
The sympathetic nervous system’s primary influence on blood pressure is through vasoconstriction (narrowing of blood vessels), increasing resistance and thus elevating BP. Insulin, baroreceptor activation, and atrial natriuretic peptide have other roles in cardiovascular regulation.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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The primary function of the intercalated cells within the nephron is to:
सही उत्तर: ग) Generate a concentration gradient in the medulla for water reabsorption
Intercalated cells have specialized transport proteins that enable them to actively secrete ions (K+, H+) and contribute to the countercurrent multiplier system, crucial for concentrating urine. Reabsorption and generating concentration gradients are primarily the functions of other nephron cell types.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following correctly describes the primary function of aldosterone?
सही उत्तर: ख) Maintaining electrolyte balance, particularly sodium and potassium
Aldosterone, produced by the adrenal cortex, plays a crucial role in regulating sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion from the kidneys, maintaining fluid balance and blood pressure. The other options describe functions of hormones like insulin, hydrochloric acid, and epinephrine respectively.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A 65-year-old male presents with sudden onset severe lower back pain, radiating down his right leg, accompanied by bowel and bladder dysfunction. Examination reveals reflex asymmetry and clonus in his legs. What is the MOST likely diagnosis? (a) Acute lumbar disc herniation. (b) Cauda equina syndrome. (c) Spinal stenosis with neurogenic claudication. (d) Spondyloarthritis.
सही उत्तर: ख) (b) Cauda equina syndrome.
The classic presentation of cauda equina syndrome – severe back pain, radiculopathy, bowel/bladder dysfunction, and reflex asymmetry – strongly suggests compression of the spinal cord at the lower lumbar level, typically due to a large disc herniation. While other options might present with similar symptoms, cauda equina is the most immediately life-threatening possibility. Option (a) describes a more gradual onset of pain. Option (c) does not explain bowel/bladder dysfunction and clonus. Option (d) involves inflammatory spinal disease.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following anatomical landmarks is crucial for identifying the location of an irreducible inguinal hernia? (a) The lateral border of the rectus abdominis muscle. (b) The medial border of the sartorius muscle. (c) The inferior epigastric vessels. (d) The ilioinguinal nerve.
सही उत्तर: ख) (b) The medial border of the sartorius muscle.
The lateral border of the rectus abdominis is a key anatomical landmark used to determine the location and thus reducibility of an inguinal hernia. Options (b), (c), and (d) are not directly involved in assessing the hernia's position.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A patient presents with signs of acute abdomen including guarding and rebound tenderness. Imaging reveals a large inflamed appendix causing perforation. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate immediate surgical intervention? (a) Laparoscopic appendectomy with drainage of abscess. (b) Exploratory laparotomy with primary resection and anastomosis of the ileum. (c) Percutaneous drainage of the peritoneal cavity followed by delayed appendectomy. (d) Conservative management with broad-spectrum antibiotics and fluid resuscitation.
सही उत्तर: ख) (b) Exploratory laparotomy with primary resection and anastomosis of the ileum.
Given the confirmed diagnosis of perforated appendicitis, exploratory laparotomy is required to address the source of infection and facilitate definitive surgical treatment – typically a primary resection and anastomosis of the ileum. Option (a) describes a less appropriate approach. Option (c) delays necessary intervention. Option (d) is entirely inappropriate for a peritonitis situation.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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The term ‘Fitz-Hugh-Murdock syndrome’ refers to which of the following? (a) Acute appendicitis with associated peritonitis. (b) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) complicated by liver abscesses. (c) Ascending bacterial infection causing cholecystitis and pancreatitis. (d) Reactive arthritis following streptococcal infections.
सही उत्तर: ख) (b) Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) complicated by liver abscesses.
Fitz-Hugh-Murdock syndrome is defined as PID with associated perihepatitis, often involving the gallbladder. This inflammatory process can lead to liver abscesses. Option (a) describes appendicitis. Option (c) relates to biliary disease. Option (d) describes reactive arthritis.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following best describes the primary mechanism of action of a Whipple procedure (pancreaticoduodenectomy)? (a) Surgical removal of the sigmoid colon and rectum. (b) Removal of the head, body, and tail of the pancreas along with the first part of the duodenum, gallbladder, and distal common bile duct. (c) Reconstruction of the stomach using a Roux-en-Y limb. (d) A palliative procedure for advanced pancreatic cancer involving chemotherapy alone.
सही उत्तर: ख) (b) Removal of the head, body, and tail of the pancreas along with the first part of the duodenum, gallbladder, and distal common bile duct.
The Whipple procedure (pancreaticoduodenectomy) is precisely defined as the surgical removal of the head, body, and tail of the pancreas along with the first part of the duodenum, gallbladder, and distal common bile duct. Option (a) describes a different colorectal resection. Option (c) refers to a gastric reconstruction technique. Option (d) inappropriately frames chemotherapy as a primary treatment for this complex surgery.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following is the most accurate description of ‘kernicterus’ in newborns? a) Inflammation of the liver caused by bacterial infection. b) Accumulation of bilirubin in the blood that causes neurological damage. c) A type of congenital heart defect resulting from abnormal fetal development. d) Excessive protein intake leading to kidney failure.
सही उत्तर: ख) b
Kernicterus (b) is the clinical manifestation of severe hyperbilirubinemia in newborns. Elevated levels of unconjugated bilirubin accumulate in the blood and cross the blood-brain barrier, causing neurological damage, particularly affecting the basal ganglia. The other options describe entirely different conditions.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A pediatrician is examining a 6-month-old infant who presents with symptoms including failure to thrive, developmental delay, and evidence of excessive phenylalanine in the urine. Which of the following conditions should be suspected? a) Turner Syndrome. b) Cystic Fibrosis. c) Phenylketonuria (PKU). d) Down Syndrome
सही उत्तर: ग) c
Phenylketonuria (c), caused by a deficiency of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase, results in elevated levels of phenylalanine in the urine. This condition causes neurological problems if untreated during infancy, leading to developmental delays and failure to thrive. The other options are unrelated.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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