स्त्री तथा प्रसूति र बाल रोग – ObGyn & Pediatrics MCQ
स्त्री तथा प्रसूति र बाल रोग – MD/MS प्रवेश
ObGyn & Pediatrics · MECEE-PG – MD/MS/MDS Entrance · ५९० प्रश्न
५९० प्रश्न उपलब्ध। मोड छान्नुहोस्:
स्त्री तथा प्रसूति र बाल रोग: प्रश्न र उत्तर
सही लागेको विकल्पमा थिच्नुहोस्। सही भए हरियो, गलत भए रातो देखिन्छ; ३ सेकेन्डपछि सही उत्तर र व्याख्या देखिन्छ।
सही: ० / ०
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In a pregnant woman presenting with lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, what is the MOST immediate step in management?
सही उत्तर: ग) C) Transvaginal ultrasound for visualization of the gestational sac and fetal viability.
The correct answer is B. Initial management focuses on stabilization with fluids and antibiotics while investigating potential causes like ectopic pregnancy or placental abruption. Option A is premature; Option C is a crucial diagnostic step but not the immediate action; Option D is rarely used and carries significant risks.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A newborn presents with a large cephalohematoma over the parietal region. Which of the following statements regarding its management is MOST accurate?
सही उत्तर: ख) B) Observation with gentle pressure applied until resolution, followed by regular monitoring for signs of infection.
The correct answer is B. Cephalohematomas typically resolve spontaneously with pressure and natural healing processes. Option A describes aggressive intervention not usually needed; Option C would be overly restrictive and potentially harmful; Option D is unnecessary as Vitamin K primarily addresses bleeding disorders related to blood clotting factors.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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What is the primary mechanism by which erythromycin inhibits bacterial protein synthesis?
सही उत्तर: ग) C. Blockage of peptide bond formation
The correct answer is C, as erythromycin is a macrolide antibiotic that specifically binds to the 50S ribosomal subunit, blocking the formation of peptide bonds during protein synthesis. Options A, B, and D represent mechanisms of action for different classes of antibiotics.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A 28-year-old female presents with severe abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding at 36 weeks gestation. Initial ultrasound reveals a non-decidualized mass with trophoblastic activity. What is the most appropriate initial management?
सही उत्तर: क) Immediate induction of labor
The correct answer is ‘Immediate induction of labor’. A hydatidiform mole (gestational trophoblastic neoplasm) requires immediate delivery of the mass and subsequent management with chemotherapy. Corticosteroids are for preterm labour, not the mole itself; embolisation and hysterectomy are reserved for cases that have failed to respond to initial treatment.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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What is the main pathophysiological mechanism behind gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM)?
सही उत्तर: ख) Increased placental insulin resistance
The correct answer is ‘Increased placental insulin resistance’. During pregnancy, placental lactogen causes increased insulin resistance in the mother’s tissues. This increased demand for insulin often exceeds the capacity of the pancreas to produce sufficient amounts of insulin, leading to hyperglycemia. The other options represent alternative mechanisms or conditions that can cause gestational diabetes.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A 6-month-old infant is brought in with a history of decreased appetite, vomiting, and diarrhea. Examination reveals signs of dehydration. A serum electrolyte panel shows hyponatremia. Which of the following conditions would be MOST likely considered in this scenario?
सही उत्तर: ग) Rotavirus Infection
The correct answer is ‘Rotavirus Infection’. Rotavirus is a common cause of gastroenteritis in infants and young children, frequently presenting with vomiting, diarrhea, hyponatremia due to fluid loss, and dehydration. Celiac disease could cause similar symptoms but would typically have other associated findings like malabsorption. The others are less likely given this specific presentation.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A pregnant woman presents with severe preterm labor at 32 weeks gestation. She has a history of gestational hypertension and proteinuria. What is the most likely immediate diagnosis based on these symptoms?
सही उत्तर: ख) Gestational diabetes mellitus
The correct answer is ‘Preterm preeclampsia’. The combination of preterm labor, hypertension, and proteinuria strongly suggests preeclampsia. Gestational diabetes can present similarly, but the presence of hypertension and proteinuria points more definitively to preeclampsia. Multiple pregnancy and FGR are less likely given the specific clinical presentation.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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What is the primary feature observed in a newborn diagnosed with Trisomy 21 (Down Syndrome)?
सही उत्तर: क) Ptosis and epicanthic folds
The correct answer is ‘Clenched fists with overlapping fingers, rocker-bottom feet, and a prominent occiput’. This clinical presentation (Plagiocephaly, hypotonia, clinodelia) are hallmark signs of Trisomy 21. The other options represent features of other genetic conditions or developmental anomalies.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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The primary function of the Wharton’s duct is: (a) Drainage of lymph from the pelvic viscera. (b) Secretion of colostrum during lactation. (c) Delivery of milk to the infant's mouth. (d) Absorption of fat in the small intestine.
सही उत्तर: ग) (c) Delivery of milk to the infant’s mouth.
Option (c) is correct because the Wharton's duct, located in the breasts, carries milk from the alveoli to the nipple for delivery to the infant. Options (a), (b), and (d) describe other functions or structures within the mammary gland system.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A 6-year-old child presents with recurrent episodes of vomiting and diarrhea leading to dehydration. Examination reveals evidence of malabsorption, steatorrhea, and weight loss. Which of the following conditions is MOST likely? (a) Celiac Disease. (b) Lactose Intolerance. (c) Cystic Fibrosis. (d) Viral Gastroenteritis
सही उत्तर: क) (a) Celiac Disease.
Option (a) is correct. The clinical presentation—recurrent episodes of vomiting and diarrhea, malabsorption, steatorrhea, and weight loss—is highly suggestive of Celiac Disease. Options (b), (c), and (d) are less likely considering the complex symptoms and associated findings.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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