स्त्री तथा प्रसूति र बाल रोग – ObGyn & Pediatrics MCQ
स्त्री तथा प्रसूति र बाल रोग – MD/MS प्रवेश
ObGyn & Pediatrics · MECEE-PG – MD/MS/MDS Entrance · ५९० प्रश्न
५९० प्रश्न उपलब्ध। मोड छान्नुहोस्:
स्त्री तथा प्रसूति र बाल रोग: प्रश्न र उत्तर
सही लागेको विकल्पमा थिच्नुहोस्। सही भए हरियो, गलत भए रातो देखिन्छ; ३ सेकेन्डपछि सही उत्तर र व्याख्या देखिन्छ।
सही: ० / ०
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A 6-month-old infant presents with ‘red currant jelly’ stools, significant abdominal distension, and inconsolable crying. Examination reveals a harsh rumbling sound in the abdomen. The most likely diagnosis is: (a) Infant Colic (b) Viral Gastroenteritis (c) Cow's Milk Protein Allergy (d) Intussusception
सही उत्तर: क) (a) Infant Colic
The ‘red currant jelly’ stools, abdominal distension and crying are classic symptoms of infant colic. While other options can cause similar symptoms, the rumbling sound strongly points to increased intestinal motility characteristic of colic. Viral gastroenteritis is also possible but lacks the characteristic stool appearance.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A newborn infant presents with profound cyanosis, a ‘bell-shaped’ cardiac silhouette on chest X-ray, and significant edema. The most likely diagnosis is: (a) Congenital Heart Defect – Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD) (b) Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome (HLHS) (c) Persistent Pulmonary Hypertension of the Newborn (PPHN) (d) Trisomy 18
सही उत्तर: ख) (b) Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome (HLHS)
The ‘bell-shaped’ cardiac silhouette and cyanosis strongly suggest a structural heart defect, particularly HLHS which presents with pulmonary hypertension and a characteristic cardiac morphology. VSDs can cause cyanosis but typically don’t present with such a distinct silhouette. Trisomy 18 is associated with various anomalies but not necessarily this specific chest X-ray finding.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A newborn presents with severe respiratory distress, cyanosis, and a heart rate of 180 bpm. Physical examination reveals a persistent ductus arteriosus. Which intervention is MOST appropriate for this infant? (a) Administration of indomethacin to close the PDA. (b) Immediate initiation of mechanical ventilation with high-flow oxygen. (c) IV fluids and monitoring for spontaneous closure of the PDA. (d) Prostaglandin analogue administration to maintain patency of the ductus arteriosus.
सही उत्तर: घ) Prostaglandin analogue administration to maintain patency of the ductus arteriosus.
Prolonged patency of the ductus arteriosus is common in neonates with PDA. Prostaglandin analogues (like Epoprostenol) are used to *maintain* this patency, allowing for further assessment and management. Option A suggests closing it which isn't the primary approach; option B is aggressive but may not be immediately needed before stabilization; option C represents passive monitoring.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A 5-year-old child presents with a sudden onset of fever followed by a bright red ‘slapped cheek’ rash and a lacy rash spreading down the limbs. Which infectious etiology is MOST likely responsible?
सही उत्तर: ग) Roseola infantum
The ‘slapped cheek’ rash is highly characteristic of rubella (German measles). Roseola presents with fever, but lacks the specific facial rash. Measles and varicella present with different rashes and associated symptoms.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A pregnant woman presents at 36 weeks gestation with severe oligohydramnios (less than 500 mL), pulmonary hypoplasia, and flattened facies in her fetus. Which clinical scenario is MOST consistent with this presentation?
सही उत्तर: ख) Biparietal twins
The Potter sequence (severe oligohydramnios, pulmonary hypoplasia, and flattened facies) is classically associated with oligohydramnios due to maternal positioning, resulting in compression of the fetal thorax and reduced placental perfusion. Gestational diabetes, biparietal twins and multiple gestations do not account for this presentation.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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Which of the following findings would MOST strongly suggest a diagnosis of Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)?
सही उत्तर: क) A single palmar crease
The most common mechanism for Down syndrome is trisomy 21, characterized by an extra copy of chromosome 21. A single palmar crease and a prominent occiput are associated with other syndromes. Microcephaly and brushfield spots aren’t specific to Down syndrome.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A 6-month-old infant presents with a fever and sudden onset seizure lasting approximately 30 seconds. What is the MOST appropriate initial management?
सही उत्तर: घ) Immediate administration of rectal diazepam
A simple febrile seizure (lasting less than 5 minutes) warrants close observation and monitoring of vital signs. While phenobarbital may be considered, immediate administration is not indicated. Antibiotics are inappropriate without evidence of infection, and rectal diazepam has a slow onset of action.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A newborn presents with projectile vomiting and abdominal distension. An abdominal X-ray reveals a ‘double bubble’ sign. This clinical presentation is MOST likely indicative of:
सही उत्तर: ख) Pyloric stenosis
Pyloric stenosis is the most common cause of vomiting in newborns with a ‘double bubble’ sign on abdominal X-ray. GERD can mimic this presentation, but typically lacks the distinct doubling of the gastric mucosal folds. Intussusception and Meckel's diverticulum are less likely to present with this specific radiographic finding.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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A newborn infant exhibits persistent jaundice appearing within 24 hours of birth. The infant’s mother has a history of gestational diabetes. Which of the following is MOST likely to be the cause of the infant’s jaundice?
सही उत्तर: घ) Neonatal Jaundice
Newborn jaundice is extremely common, especially in infants with diabetic mothers or those born prematurely due to increased bilirubin production and decreased liver function. While breastfeeding issues and Gilbert's syndrome can cause jaundice, the prompt onset in a diabetic pregnancy strongly points towards neonatal jaundice as the primary diagnosis.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
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In 2023, a 16-year-old girl is diagnosed with congenital heart disease following prenatal ultrasound. The fetal echocardiogram revealed evidence of twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS). Which of the following statements regarding TTTS is MOST accurate?
सही उत्तर: ख) It is more common in monochorionic twins
TTTS primarily occurs in monochorionic twins (where the fetuses share a placenta) which are most susceptible to vascular mismatch. Identical twins cannot develop TTTS as they share the same placental circulation. While TTTS can result in fetal demise, it is frequently treatable with interventions targeting the placental vessels.
💬 टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट (०)
यी अभ्यास प्रश्न हुन्, आधिकारिक प्रश्न होइनन्। पाठ्यक्रम, विज्ञापन र नतिजाका लागि सम्बन्धित निकायको आधिकारिक वेबसाइट हेर्नुहोस्। उत्तरमा गल्ती भेटे प्रश्नमुनिको "टिप्पणी / गल्ती रिपोर्ट" मा लेख्नुहोस्।
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